Correct: The parol evidence rule prevents the introduction of evidence of prior or contemporaneous negotiations that contradict the terms of a final, integrated written agreement. Since the contract contains an integration clause, the written terms are the definitive record of the parties’ obligations. Ethically, the contract manager must protect the organization’s legal and financial interests by adhering to the signed agreement, while also acting as a responsible partner by seeking collaborative, non-contractual ways to support the supplier’s viability without legally binding the organization to terms it intentionally excluded.

Incorrect: Amending the contract solely based on a prior verbal promise ignores the legal purpose of the integration clause and the parol evidence rule, which are designed to provide certainty and prevent such claims. Assuming that detrimental reliance automatically overrides the parol evidence rule is a legal misconception; courts and arbitrators rarely allow extrinsic evidence to contradict clear, integrated written terms in a commercial context. Terminating the contract for cause is an extreme and unjustified reaction, as the supplier’s request for consideration is a negotiation point rather than a material breach of the existing contract terms.

Takeaway: The parol evidence rule ensures that a fully integrated written contract serves as the final and complete agreement, superseding prior verbal negotiations and protecting the integrity of the written document.

Correct: The principle of privity of contract dictates that rights and obligations are only enforceable between the parties to a contract. To bridge this gap in multi-tier supply chains, process optimization involves the use of flow-down clauses. These clauses ensure that the prime contractor’s requirements are legally binding upon lower-tier suppliers through a chain of contracts, allowing the prime to hold the Tier 1 subcontractor accountable for the failures of Tier 2, who in turn holds Tier 2 accountable.

Incorrect: Directly issuing directives to Tier 2 suppliers without a contractual relationship can create legal ambiguity and potentially waive the Tier 1 subcontractor’s responsibility for performance. Non-disclosure agreements protect intellectual property but do not address the legal standing required to enforce performance warranties across tiers. Centralizing procurement of materials changes the logistics of the supply chain but does not resolve the lack of privity regarding the workmanship or performance obligations of the lower-tier subcontractors themselves.

Takeaway: Flow-down clauses are the primary mechanism for maintaining contractual integrity and performance accountability across multiple tiers of a supply chain where direct privity is absent.

Correct: Implementing a structured performance management system with collaborative KPIs and joint reviews is a core principle of post-award contract management. This approach fosters a partnership environment where both parties work toward process optimization, allowing for proactive problem-solving and the identification of efficiencies that preserve and enhance the value of the contract throughout its lifecycle.

Incorrect: Standardizing all terms regardless of risk ignores the necessity of tailored risk management and can lead to sub-optimal outcomes for high-criticality logistics. Transferring all risk to the provider often results in higher premiums and adversarial relationships rather than process optimization. While automation is useful, eliminating human interaction entirely removes the relationship management component essential for resolving complex supply chain disruptions and nuanced performance issues.

Takeaway: Process optimization in contract management is best achieved through collaborative performance monitoring and data-driven reviews rather than rigid standardization or total risk transfer.

Correct: In contract law principles relevant to professional contract management, the ‘mirror image rule’ requires that an acceptance must be an unconditional and absolute assent to all terms of the offer. By introducing a change to the tracking frequency, the procurement manager has issued a counter-offer. This counter-offer acts as a legal rejection of the original offer, meaning no contract is formed unless the original offeror (the freight forwarder) accepts the new terms.

Incorrect: The suggestion that minor modifications do not prevent contract formation is incorrect under strict offer and acceptance rules, as any deviation creates a counter-offer. The doctrine of substantial performance relates to the execution phase of a contract, not its formation. Furthermore, once a counter-offer is made, the original offer is legally terminated and cannot be accepted later unless it is specifically revived by the offeror.

Takeaway: A valid contract requires an unconditional acceptance that mirrors the offer; any modification, regardless of perceived importance, constitutes a counter-offer and rejects the original proposal.

Correct: In contract management and commercial law, the ‘pre-existing duty rule’ dictates that a promise to perform an act that a party is already legally obligated to perform does not constitute valid consideration. For a modification to a firm-fixed-price contract to be binding, there must be a new bargained-for exchange of legal value. This means the carrier must offer something new—such as faster delivery times, extended service hours, or additional reporting—in exchange for the higher price to satisfy the requirement of consideration.

Incorrect: Mutual consent without new consideration is generally insufficient to modify a contract under traditional legal frameworks, as it lacks the necessary exchange of value. Acknowledging that a supplier’s costs have increased or that market conditions have shifted does not provide the legal element of consideration required to make a new promise binding. While unforeseen events might lead to discussions of impracticability, they do not automatically waive the legal requirement for consideration in a voluntary contract amendment.

Takeaway: A binding contract modification requires a new exchange of legal value to satisfy the requirement of consideration, preventing one party from being legally bound to pay more for the same performance.

Correct: In a logistics context, the contract manager serves as a critical link between diverse stakeholders. When performance metrics are misaligned, the manager’s role is to facilitate communication and ensure that the contractual framework—specifically SLAs and KPIs—supports the integrated goals of the supply chain. This collaborative approach ensures that the carrier and the distribution center are not working at cross-purposes, which is essential for maintaining long-term operational efficiency and stakeholder trust.

Incorrect: Unilaterally amending contract terms is generally a breach of contract principles and damages the partnership between the shipper and carrier. Delegating performance management to procurement ignores the contract manager’s specific duty to oversee the execution and health of the agreement. Prioritizing one stakeholder’s demands without considering the operational capacity of others often leads to increased costs and further disruptions, failing the requirement to manage the contract holistically.

Takeaway: The contract manager in logistics must act as a facilitator to align stakeholder performance metrics with the broader strategic goals of the supply chain.

Correct: In the contract lifecycle, the closeout phase is not merely about the end of physical performance but the administrative and legal finality of the relationship. Obtaining a signed release of claims is a standard professional practice that ensures the contractor waives any further right to seek payment or damages once the final settlement is reached. This addresses the finance department’s need for reconciliation and the legal department’s need to mitigate residual liability from the potential indemnity claim.

Incorrect: Focusing solely on the successor transition ignores the contractual obligations of the current agreement, leaving the organization exposed to financial and legal risks. Withholding payment indefinitely without a specific contractual right or a filed claim could constitute a breach of contract and damage vendor relationships. Archiving files before resolving financial disputes and legal liabilities fails to meet the professional standards of contract administration, as closeout requires a verified zero-balance and a formal discharge of duties.

Takeaway: Formal contract closeout must include a comprehensive financial reconciliation and a legal release of claims to protect the organization from post-contractual disputes.

Correct: In contract management, capacity requires that the individual signing the contract has the legal authority to bind the organization. Without proper power of attorney or corporate authority, the contract may be voidable. Furthermore, legality of purpose dictates that a contract must not involve illegal acts; transporting goods through an embargoed route for those specific items renders the contract’s purpose illegal and thus unenforceable under standard legal frameworks.

Incorrect: The approach of proceeding with ratification is incorrect because while capacity might be cured, the illegality of the purpose (violating an embargo) cannot be waived by commercial necessity. Restructuring as a memorandum of understanding is incorrect because it does not resolve the underlying illegality of the purpose, and capacity is still required for any agreement intended to be binding. Relying on apparent authority is incorrect because a known lack of capacity discovered during due diligence cannot be ignored, and an illegal act such as violating an embargo is a matter of legality, not a force majeure event.

Takeaway: A valid logistics contract requires both the legal authority of the signatories to bind their organizations and a purpose that complies with all applicable international trade laws and regulations.

Correct: Express warranties are created by any affirmation of fact, promise, description, or sample/model that becomes part of the basis of the bargain; the datasheet and prototype meet these criteria. An implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose is created when the seller has reason to know the buyer’s specific use for the goods and the buyer relies on the seller’s expertise to select the appropriate product.

Incorrect: The datasheet and prototype are not implied warranties of merchantability because merchantability refers to the general fitness for ordinary purposes, not specific technical promises. Classifying all representations as express warranties ignores the legal distinction of implied warranties that arise from the context of the buyer’s reliance. Technical specifications and prototypes are legally binding affirmations of fact, not mere puffery or sales talk.

Takeaway: Express warranties arise from specific seller affirmations or samples, whereas implied warranties of fitness for a particular purpose are triggered by the seller’s knowledge of the buyer’s unique needs and the buyer’s reliance on the seller’s judgment.

Correct: In contract law, the mirror image rule requires that an acceptance must match the offer exactly. By adding a proviso regarding the liability limit, the procurement officer has made a counter-offer. A counter-offer acts as a legal rejection of the original offer, meaning no contract exists unless the original offeror accepts the new terms proposed in the counter-offer.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the change is non-material is incorrect because liability limits are fundamental risk-allocation terms in logistics and are almost always considered material. The response is not a mere inquiry because it uses conditional language (‘provided that’) which signals a refusal to be bound by the original terms. A conditional acceptance does not bind parties to the original terms; instead, it prevents contract formation until the new conditions are agreed upon by both parties.

Takeaway: A valid contract requires an unequivocal acceptance of all material terms, and any conditional response typically functions as a counter-offer that rejects the original proposal.

Correct: This approach aligns with the CMBOK guiding principles of communication, risk management, and relationship management. By conducting a risk impact analysis and engaging in collaborative problem-solving, the contract manager ensures that decisions are data-driven and that all parties are aligned. Formalizing changes through bilateral modifications maintains the legal integrity of the contract and ensures that both parties agree to the revised terms, which is a cornerstone of effective post-award contract administration.

Incorrect: Issuing a default notice without exploring mitigation (option b) ignores the collaborative nature of modern supply chain management and risks unnecessary litigation, while lack of transparency damages stakeholder trust. Unilateral adjustments (option c) are generally not permitted in contract law and misinterpret the application of excusable delay clauses, which typically require specific notice and documentation. Bypassing due diligence for substitute vendors (option d) introduces significant quality and compliance risks into the supply chain, violating the principle of sound procurement practices.

Takeaway: Successful contract management during supply chain disruptions relies on a structured framework of risk assessment, stakeholder transparency, and formal bilateral documentation.

Correct: The contract manager is responsible for the integrity of the contractual relationship and the clarity of its terms. When performance analysis reveals ambiguities in clauses like ‘unforeseeable disruptions,’ the manager must facilitate a formal modification. This process ensures that both parties have a shared understanding of excusable versus non-excusable delays, which mitigates legal risk and aligns the contract with operational realities.

Incorrect: Enforcing penalties without addressing the underlying ambiguity often leads to protracted legal disputes and damages the strategic partnership. Reassigning oversight to an operational department ignores the contract manager’s specific duty to manage the legal and administrative aspects of the agreement. Issuing a notice of default without attempting to clarify the terms is a premature escalation that may be seen as a breach of the duty to act in good faith if the disruptions were indeed valid under a broad interpretation of the existing contract.

Takeaway: A contract manager must proactively resolve contractual ambiguities through formal modifications to ensure that performance expectations and risk allocations are clearly defined and enforceable.

Correct: In commercial contract law, the pre-existing duty rule dictates that performing or promising to perform an act that a party is already legally obligated to do does not constitute valid consideration for a new promise, such as a price increase. Therefore, if the logistics provider did not provide an additional benefit (e.g., faster delivery or expanded routes) in exchange for the surcharge, the modification may lack the consideration necessary to be enforceable.

Incorrect: The suggestion that written amendments automatically satisfy consideration is incorrect because the form of the agreement (written) does not replace the substantive requirement for an exchange of value. The argument regarding foreseeability is a common misconception; while foreseeability is relevant to ‘commercial impracticability’ or ‘force majeure’ claims, it does not create consideration for a price modification. Finally, the claim that consideration only applies to initial formation is false, as modifications to existing contracts generally require their own consideration to be legally binding.

Takeaway: For a contract modification to be legally enforceable, there must typically be a fresh exchange of value or a new legal detriment incurred by both parties beyond their original contractual duties.

Correct: Standard commercial codes are designed to facilitate trade by providing gap-filler provisions that prevent contracts from failing due to indefiniteness. When a contract is silent on the place of delivery, the default rule generally establishes the seller’s place of business as the location for delivery. This approach balances the interests of both parties by not imposing un-negotiated transportation costs or risks on the seller while still maintaining a valid, enforceable agreement.

Incorrect: The suggestion that a contract is voidable for missing a delivery term is incorrect because commercial codes prioritize contract preservation through gap-filling rules rather than cancellation. Assigning the buyer’s facility as the default delivery point is incorrect because it would unfairly shift transportation costs and risks to the seller without an explicit agreement. Mandatory mediation is a procedural dispute resolution mechanism and does not serve as a substantive default rule for missing commercial terms.

Takeaway: Standard commercial codes provide default gap-filling rules, such as designating the seller’s place of business as the delivery point, to maintain contract validity when specific terms are omitted.

Correct: Under general commercial legal principles applicable to supply chain contracts, the ‘specially manufactured goods’ exception allows for the enforcement of a verbal contract. If a seller has begun manufacturing unique items that cannot be easily resold to other customers, the lack of a formal written contract does not prevent the agreement from being legally binding, as the specialized nature of the goods serves as evidence of the contract’s existence.

Incorrect: The assertion that contracts are void without a specific regulatory template is incorrect, as the statute of frauds focuses on evidence of an agreement rather than specific government forms. Internal electronic communications from only one party typically do not satisfy the requirement for a signature from the party against whom enforcement is sought. Finally, the statute of frauds is not waived for the logistics industry; it remains a fundamental requirement for high-value transactions to prevent fraudulent claims.

Takeaway: Custom-manufactured goods provide a significant exception to the statute of frauds, allowing verbal agreements to be enforced when the goods are unique to the buyer and production has commenced.

Correct: The knock-out rule is a widely recognized principle in commercial contract management used to resolve the battle of the forms. When parties exchange documents with conflicting terms but proceed to perform the contract, the conflicting terms cancel each other out (are knocked out). The resulting gaps in the contract are then filled by default legal rules or trade usages to ensure the contract remains enforceable while preventing either party from being bound to terms they did not expressly agree to.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the last document sent prevails describes the last shot rule, which is a different approach that favors the party who sent the final form before performance. Claiming the contract is void ignores the reality of commercial practice where performance (shipping and accepting goods) is generally viewed as evidence of a contract’s existence despite term discrepancies. Prioritizing the initial offer as the only valid set of terms fails to recognize that modern commercial standards treat conflicting acceptances as a rejection of specific terms rather than a rejection of the entire offer.

Takeaway: The knock-out rule resolves conflicting terms by neutralizing them and relying on default commercial gap-fillers to maintain the contract’s integrity.

Correct: The parol evidence rule prevents the introduction of extrinsic evidence—whether oral or written—that was made prior to or contemporaneous with the execution of a fully integrated written contract. When a contract contains an integration (or merger) clause, it confirms that the written document is the final and complete agreement. Therefore, any prior promises or emails that contradict or add to the written terms are generally inadmissible and unenforceable.

Incorrect: The assertion that the rule only applies to oral testimony is incorrect, as it encompasses all forms of extrinsic evidence including prior written correspondence. The idea that pre-contractual representations are automatically incorporated is false; the purpose of a written contract is to define the boundaries of the agreement. While course of dealing can sometimes be used to interpret ambiguous terms, it cannot be used to introduce a completely new material term like a volume discount that contradicts a fully integrated agreement.

Takeaway: To ensure enforceability in supply chain operations, all negotiated incentives and terms must be explicitly included in the final integrated written contract to avoid exclusion by the parol evidence rule.

Correct: The doctrine of privity of contract establishes that rights and obligations are only enforceable between the parties who signed the agreement. In a multi-tier supply chain, the Prime Contractor has a contractual relationship with the first-tier subcontractor, but not with the second-tier subcontractor. Therefore, the Prime Contractor must follow the ‘chain of liability,’ holding the first-tier subcontractor responsible for the failure of its chosen sub-tier, unless a specific legal instrument like a collateral warranty or a direct agreement exists to bridge the gap.

Incorrect: Flow-down clauses ensure that subcontractors are bound by the same technical and performance standards as the prime, but they do not create a direct legal nexus or ‘privity’ between the prime and sub-subcontractors. Equitable subrogation is a narrow legal doctrine typically used in insurance or suretyship and does not provide a general right for a prime contractor to sue a sub-tier for breach of contract. Incorporation by reference merely adopts the terms of one document into another for the sake of consistency; it does not expand the list of parties who are legally bound to one another in a contractual capacity.

Takeaway: The doctrine of privity generally restricts legal claims to the immediate parties of a contract, requiring supply chain disputes to be resolved through the established chain of contractual relationships.

Correct: In complex acquisitions where technical obsolescence is a high risk, a Best Value Tradeoff process allows the buyer to evaluate the benefits of superior technical solutions against their cost. Modular contracting further mitigates risk by breaking the acquisition into smaller, manageable increments, allowing for technology refreshes and adjustments as new innovations emerge during the project lifecycle.

Incorrect: The Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) approach is inappropriate for complex projects where technical innovation is a primary requirement, as it forces the selection of the cheapest compliant bid. Sole-source procurement reduces competition and may lead to higher costs and less innovation. A firm-fixed-price contract with a rigid Statement of Work is counterproductive when facing technical obsolescence, as it prevents the flexibility needed to incorporate necessary technological updates.

Takeaway: Effective acquisition planning for high-tech logistics projects requires balancing cost against technical risk through Best Value Tradeoff and modular procurement strategies.

Correct: In contract law, the mirror image rule requires that an acceptance must be an unconditional assent to the exact terms of the offer. By adding a new requirement regarding carbon-tracking software, the manufacturer has introduced a material change. This acts as a rejection of the original offer and creates a counter-offer, which the original offeror (the logistics provider) must now accept for a contract to exist.

Incorrect: The claim that a contract is formed because essential terms match is incorrect because any additional material obligation prevents the formation of a contract under the mirror image rule. The idea that terms are automatically incorporated is a common misconception derived from specific commercial codes that do not apply if the response is conditioned on the new terms or if they are material. The suggestion that the original offer remains open is legally inaccurate, as a counter-offer typically terminates the offeree’s power to accept the original offer.

Takeaway: An acceptance that adds new or different terms to an offer generally functions as a counter-offer and rejection rather than a binding agreement.

Correct: Under the standards of conduct for this exam is supply chain, logistics related exam, a procurement official who is seeking employment with a contractor must immediately report the contact in writing and recuse themselves from any official actions involving that contractor to prevent conflicts of interest. This impact assessment ensures that the procurement process remains free from actual or perceived bias, protecting the government’s interests.

Correct: In government procurement, the government is only bound by agents who possess actual authority, which is typically granted to Contracting Officers through a formal warrant. Unlike private commercial law, where a principal may be bound by the ‘apparent authority’ of an agent, the government is not liable for the unauthorized acts of its employees, even if the contractor reasonably believed the employee had the authority to act.

Incorrect: The instruction from a Program Manager does not bind the government because ‘key personnel’ status does not confer the legal authority to modify contract terms or obligate funds. A constructive change requires that the direction come from someone with the authority to bind the government, or that the action be subsequently ratified by a Contracting Officer. Ratification is a discretionary process and is never automatic simply because the government received a benefit from an unauthorized act.

Takeaway: Only individuals with express actual authority, specifically Contracting Officers, have the legal power to bind the government to contractual changes.

Correct: Acquisition is defined as the entire process of fulfilling an organizational need, starting from the identification of requirements through to contract administration and closeout. A contract is a specific subset of this process, representing the legally binding agreement where the seller provides goods or services in exchange for payment.

Correct: According to the Guiding Principles in FAR 1.102-4(e), the Acquisition Team is encouraged to exercise initiative and use sound business judgment. If a policy or procedure is in the best interest of the Government and is not addressed in the FAR nor prohibited by law, Executive order, or other regulation, the strategy should be assumed to be permissible. This principle empowers the team to innovate and deliver best value to the customer.

Incorrect: Requiring a formal deviation for every unaddressed scenario would stifle innovation and contradicts the empowerment of the Acquisition Team. Prioritizing standardized templates at the expense of better-suited novel strategies ignores the primary goal of achieving best value. The authority to innovate is delegated to the Acquisition Team level and does not require a specific ruling from the Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council unless a conflict with existing regulation exists.

Takeaway: The Federal Acquisition System assumes any strategy not prohibited by law or regulation is permissible if it serves the best interest of the Government.

Correct: In accordance with FAR 1.403, individual deviations affect only one contract action. These deviations may be authorized by the agency head or their designee. Furthermore, FAR 1.403 requires that a copy of the approved deviation be included in the contract file to ensure a complete and transparent record of the regulatory exceptions applied to that specific procurement.

Incorrect: Requiring approval from the Chair of the Civilian Agency Acquisition Council is a procedure typically associated with class deviations under FAR 1.404, rather than individual deviations. Publishing a deviation in the Federal Register for public comment is a requirement for formal rulemaking or significant changes to the FAR itself, not for an individual contract deviation. The Simplified Acquisition Threshold does not grant a Contracting Officer the authority to unilaterally waive FAR requirements; the formal deviation process must still be followed regardless of the contract’s dollar value.

Takeaway: Individual deviations from the FAR require authorization by the agency head or a designee and must be documented within the specific contract file to which they apply.

Correct: Per FAR 4.1102 and FAR 52.204-7, contractors are required to be registered in the System for Award Management (SAM) at the time an offer or quotation is submitted. This registration must remain active throughout the entire lifecycle of the procurement and the resulting contract, including the performance period and the processing of the final payment, to ensure compliance with representations, certifications, and payment requirements.

Incorrect: The requirement for registration at the time of award only is insufficient because the regulation mandates registration at the time of offer submission. Initiating the process is not the same as being registered, and the regulation does not allow for a grace period during the evaluation phase. A thirty-day post-award window is incorrect as registration is a prerequisite for the submission of the offer itself.

Takeaway: Active registration in the System for Award Management is a continuous requirement starting from the submission of an offer through the receipt of final payment.

Correct: The Federal Acquisition Regulation System is maintained through the coordination of a central Council. This process involves drafting, public notification, and the issuance of Federal Acquisition Circulars to ensure all stakeholders have input and that the regulations remain consistent across the procurement landscape. This collaborative approach ensures that changes are vetted by senior procurement officials and the public before implementation.

Incorrect: Unilateral amendments by a single agency without coordination would undermine the goal of a uniform system and fail to account for broader impacts across the supply chain. While the legislative branch passes laws that necessitate changes, the actual maintenance of the regulation is a coordinated executive function rather than a purely legislative one. The regulation consists of binding rules, not non-binding guidance, and its maintenance is a government function rather than one outsourced to private consultants, which would lack the necessary legal authority.

Takeaway: The Federal Acquisition Regulation System is updated through a collaborative process involving the Council and public participation, culminating in the issuance of Federal Acquisition Circulars.

Correct: The Head of the Contracting Activity (HCA) is the official who has overall responsibility for managing the contracting activity. A critical part of this role is the management of the contracting officer warrant system. This includes ensuring that only qualified individuals are appointed as contracting officers and that their authority is clearly defined, documented, and maintained to ensure the integrity of the procurement process.

Incorrect: Directly conducting technical evaluations is typically the responsibility of technical experts or the requiring activity, not the HCA. While the HCA manages the contracting function, they do not have the authority to unilaterally change the underlying procurement regulations or laws to bypass compliance requirements. Legal representation in court is the responsibility of the organization’s legal counsel or the relevant government legal department, rather than the HCA, whose role is administrative and managerial.

Takeaway: The Head of the Contracting Activity is responsible for the systemic management of the contracting function, specifically the proper delegation and oversight of contracting authority.

Correct: Under federal procurement guidelines, the contracting officer must designate the code that most accurately reflects the principal purpose of the procurement. This is generally determined by evaluating which industry description accounts for the largest portion of the estimated contract value, ensuring that the classification aligns with the economic reality of the work being performed.

Incorrect: Selecting a code based on labor hours is incorrect because economic value is the regulatory standard for determining principal purpose. Prioritizing technical complexity over value fails to capture the primary objective of the procurement. Choosing a code based on size standards is a regulatory violation, as the classification must be based on the nature of the work rather than a desired socio-economic outcome.

Takeaway: The primary industry code must reflect the principal purpose of the acquisition, which is typically defined by the component representing the highest contract value.

Correct: The FAR Council, established by the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act, is responsible for managing, coordinating, and controlling the procurement system. Its primary risk assessment function in maintaining the FAR is to ensure that any changes are consistent across the government and that agency-specific supplements (such as the DFARS or GSAM) remain subordinate to and consistent with the FAR, thereby reducing the risk of a fragmented and confusing regulatory environment.

Incorrect: Delegating final approval to individual agency heads would undermine the statutory purpose of the FAR Council to provide a unified procurement system. Focusing only on small business financial impact ignores the broader mandate of regulatory consistency and risk management across the entire acquisition lifecycle. Issuing blanket temporary deviations is a reactive measure that does not fulfill the Council’s proactive role in maintaining the FAR’s integrity and resolving conflicts through formal rulemaking.

Takeaway: The FAR Council ensures procurement system stability by coordinating regulatory changes to maintain consistency between the FAR and agency-specific supplements.